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QUESTION #4 What does Paul mean in Colossians 1:24 when he says, “I now rejoice in my sufferings for you, and fill up in my flesh what is lacking in the afflictions of Christ, for the sake of His body, which is the church” (italics added for emphasis)? RESPONSE Option #1 — Purgatory: “Roman Catholics have imagined here a reference to the suffering of Christians in purgatory. Christ’s suffering, they maintain, was not enough to purge us completely from our sins. Christians must make up what was lacking in Christ’s suffering on their behalf by their own suffering after death. That can hardly be Paul’s point, however. [1] He has just finished demonstrating that Christ alone is sufficient to reconcile us to God (1:20-23). To do an about face now and teach that believers must help pay for their sins would undermine his whole argument. The New Testament is clear that Christ’s sufferings need nothing added to them. In Jesus’ death on the cross, the work of salvation was completed. [2] Further, the Colossian heretics taught that human works were necessary for salvation. To teach that believers’ suffering was necessary to help expiate their sins would be to play right into the errorists’ hands. [3] The idea that Paul refers to suffering in purgatory is ruled out by both the general content of the epistle and the immediate context, as well as the obvious absence of any mention of a place like purgatory in Scripture. [4] Finally, thlipsis (afflictions) is used nowhere in the New Testament to speak of Christ’s sufferings.”[i] Option #2 — Eschatological: “These sufferings are part and parcel of Christ’s afflictions—not His death on the cross or redemptive sufferings which are ‘finished’—but the afflictions of His people which He endures [cf. Acts 9:4]. The expression Christ’s afflictions is to be understood against an OT and Jewish background with its notion of the afflictions of the end time. These were called the ‘birth-pangs of the Messiah,’ those pains and woes which would occur before the arrival of God’s anointed ruler, the Messiah. In the NT they occur between the first and second comings of Jesus. The exalted Christ is in heaven and before His return He suffers in His members [that is, His spiritual body, the church], not least in the life of Paul himself [cf. 2 Corinthians 11:23-29]. These afflictions have been limited by God; the quota will be complete when the end comes. All Christians take part in these sufferings; it is through them that we enter the kingdom of God (Acts 14:22; 1 Thes. 3:3, 7). Suffering with Christ is essential if we are to be glorified with Him (Rom. 8:17). Through the sufferings he endures in his own flesh, Paul contributes to the sum total, to what is still lacking. The more he suffers the less the Colossians have to.”[ii] Option #3 — Individual: “We may simply understand it to refer to “the persecution that was intended for Christ.” MacArthur explains, “Jesus, having ascended to heaven, was out of their reach. But because His enemies had not filled up all the injuries they wanted to inflict on Him, they turned their hatred on those who preached the gospel. It was in that sense that Paul filled up what was lacking in Christ’s afflictions. In 2 Corinthians 1:5 he wrote that ‘the sufferings of Christ are ours in abundance.’ He bore in his body the marks of the blows intended for Christ (Gal. 6:17; cf. 2 Cor. 11:23–28). God is sovereign over these afflictions and knows what is each of our lot [cf. Acts 14:22; 1 Thessalonians 3:3, 7]—so also they might appropriately be enumerated in our lives as ‘filling up…what is lacking in the afflictions of Christ.’”[iii] I prefer this understanding over Option #2, (1) because Option #2 is not a clearly delineated doctrine in Scripture but is instead a bit of a logical leap, (2) because the context is not dealing with eschatological matters but rather present realities, and (3) because Option #3 takes a simple approach to Paul’s statement that is in keeping with his expressions elsewhere (cf. 2 Corinthians 1:5; Galatians 6:17). The Point — Twice in this verse, Paul uses the Greek preposition huper, which means “on behalf of, for the sake of.” Paul saw himself as suffering for the sake of the Colossian believers—yes, even suffering on behalf of the universal body of Christ, His church. While the same preposition is used for Christ’s suffering (cf. 1 Peter 2:21), it obviously carried a different meaning.[iv] Paul’s suffering wasn’t sacrificial, atoning, or propitiatory, as was Jesus’ (1 Corinthians 15:3; 1 Peter 2:24; 3:18); nonetheless, it was still experienced “on the behalf of” or for the benefit of the church. See, Paul practiced what both Peter and John wrote concerning our response to Christ’s sacrificial suffering. Peter wrote in 1 Peter 2:21, “For even [unto suffering] were ye called, because Christ also suffered for [huper] us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow His steps.” John concurred in 1 John 3:16, “Hereby perceive we the love of God, because He laid down His life for [huper] us, and we ought to lay down our lives for [huper] the brethren.” Therefore, while Christ’s suffering and death was more than just an example—it was atoning!—it also serves, for His followers, as an example. That is, just as Jesus suffered and died for our spiritual benefit, we should suffer (and perhaps die) for the spiritual benefit of others. As a servant of the gospel, Paul willingly faced suffering so that others might come to know the hope of the gospel and thereby be reconciled to God (vv. 21-22) and continue in the faith (v. 23). In fact, Paul understands that some would hear the gospel only because of his suffering, like Caesar’s household, for example (cf. Philippians 1:12-13; 4:22). So, he willingly sacrificed his own temporary comfort and convenience for the everlasting glory of gospel fruit (cf. 2 Timothy 2:10).[v] He surrendered himself to temporal suffering, so that others might not experience eternal suffering! Christ suffered in death to save the church, and Paul is suffering in life to help the church! Paul recognized that his suffering served God’s gospel purposes—it “filled up” the ordained afflictions of Christ’s body and gave the Colossians the opportunity to hear the message of salvation and respond in faith. For him to avoid suffering could only have come by his ceasing to proclaim the gospel, thereby forfeiting the opportunity of salvation for those who might hear. So, while suffering is never pleasant, in God’s sovereign plan for His gospel-ministers, it is purposeful. ENDNOTES
[i] John Macarthur, Colossians (Chicago: Moody Press, 1996), pp. 74-75. [ii] D. A. Carson, New Bible Commentary: 21st Century Edition, 4th ed. (Downers Grove, IL: Inter-Varsity Press, 1994). Cf. Richard R. Melick, Vol. 32, Philippians, Colissians, Philemon, electronic ed., Logos Library System in The New American Commentary (Nashville: Broadman & Holman Publishers, 2001), pp. 139-140. [iii] MacArthur, p. 75. [iv] “Jesus’ afflictions became Paul’s sufferings. Paul carefully distinguished between the two. He suffered in his body (‘in my flesh’), and there was a real struggle. The text reveals some parallels between Jesus and Paul. Both suffered in the flesh; both suffered vicariously; both suffered for the gospel; and both suffered for the church. Many differences between them occur, however. Paul did not suffer redemptively. Jesus completed the work of redemption for all people. Paul’s task was to open the door for a universal proclamation of the gospel. At the least, he hoped to convince all people of the validity of the gospel and its application to all persons, Jew or Gentile” (Melick, p. 240). “Participating in the sufferings of Christ is a spiritual experience which is born out of the believer’s union with Christ. Paul is one of a great army of believers who, having taken up their cross and followed Jesus, contribute to the growth of the church worldwide. Christ suffered in death to save the church, and Paul is suffering in life to help the churches. Paul can add nothing to the redemptive work of Christ; there is no sacrificial act of atonement suggested here, rather a participation in the reproach of the Saviour which Paul faced as God’s messenger” (Ian S. McNaughton, Opening Up Colossians and Philemon [Leominster: Day One Publications, 2006], p. 33). [v] John Foxe, “The blood of the martyrs is the seed of the church.” QUESTION #2 What is the meaning of 1 Peter 3:19-20 regarding Christ preaching to spirits in prison? RESPONSE Principles — (1) God’s word is inerrant and does not contradict. So, apparent contradictions can be explained, and God’s Spirit will be our teacher. (2) Always move from clearer passages to less clear in your Bible interpretation; let the clear passages be your foundation and help you interpret the less clear passages. (3) Beware of building a theological dogma on an unclear passage. (4) Use the context to help you understand the unique nuance the author is seeking to convey. Option #1 — (1) Rather than suggesting Purgatory, this text must be interpreted in light of clearer biblical teaching, like Luke 16:26 and Hebrews 9:27 which teach that there are no second chances to respond to the gospel after death. Furthermore, the word for preach is not “preach the gospel” (euangelizo), but “preach” or “proclaim” (kerusso), so the idea of those who die having a second chance to hear and respond to the gospel is not substantiated by this text. (2) Jesus preached to these “spirits in prison” “in [the Spirit]”—that becomes quite helpful. It was not, then, a physical preaching in which His presence was materially present. (3) Who are these “spirits in prison”? I believe that the grammar, context, and purpose of the passage strongly indicates that they are those who didn’t obey Noah’s preaching during the time of God’s patience when the ark was being prepared for judgment (v. 20).
So, because of the grammar, context, and purpose of this passage, I believe these are the unbelievers who used to be alive in Noah’s day, and after they died, having rejected his preaching, they were imprisoned in eternal condemnation (i.e., they are “the spirits now in prison who once were disobedient…in the days of Noah,” NASB). Both the NET and NASB translations favor this interpretation. John Piper explains it this way, “I think it refers to the time when people in Noah’s day were disobedient, mocking him as a righteous man obeying God (like the situation in the lives of Peter's readers), and that Jesus, in the spirit, was sent by God in those days to preach to those people through Noah. Just like in [1 Peter] 1:11 the Spirit of Jesus was in the Old Testament prophets predicting his coming, so the Spirit of Jesus was in Noah preaching to the disobedient people of Noah’s day. They are NOW in prison—that is, in a place of torment awaiting the final judgment (Luke 16:24).”[ii] Option #2 — While the NET Bible argues for this interpretation, it also suggests a viable alternative: "Christ’s announcement of his victory [cf. v. 18] over evil to the fallen angels who await judgment for their role in leading the Noahic generation into sin [cf. Colossians 2:14-15; 2 Peter 2:4-5; Jude 6-7; Genesis 6:1-8];[iii] this proclamation occurred sometime between Christ’s death and ascension”[iv] (cf. MacArthur Study Bible). The Point — (1) God the Son has always been concerned with the salvation of sinners, even in His pre-incarnate state. (2) The ark is a prophetic event, a shadow of the gospel, pointing forward to the gracious provision of God through the substitutionary Atonement on a wooden cross. God provides a way of salvation from His wrath on our sin, and we must take our refuge in Him in order to be rescued! Just as Noah and his family were only saved by being “in the ark” which bore the brunt of God’s punishing waves, so we are only saved by being “in Christ” who bore the wrath of God for us. QUESTION #3 What is the meaning of 1 Peter 3:21 regarding baptism? It seems like it is saying that baptism is necessary for salvation. RESPONSE Starting with the clearer truth, we know from Scripture that baptism does not save a person. So, we have to figure out what this passage means, when it appears on a surface level reading to contradict that clearer truth. It is helpful for us to observe that Peter writes that baptism “corresponds” (i.e., “like figure whereunto,” KJV; “antitype,” NKJV; “symbolizes,” NIV; “prefigured,” NET; BDAG: a representation, copy, corresponding situation) to the ark.
ENDNOTES
[i] Biblical Studies Press, The NET Bible First Edition; Bible. English. NET Bible.; The NET Bible (Biblical Studies Press, 2006). [ii] http://www.desiringgod.org/sermons/strengthened-to-suffer-christ-noah-and-baptism [iii] Noting that the word for “preaching” or “proclaimed” here is not the Greek word euangelizomai, but kerusso, Gleason Archer suggests a slight variation to this option: “the proclamation made by the crucified Christ in Hades to all the souls of the dead may have been to the effect that the price had now been paid for sin, and all those who died in the faith were to get ready for their departure to heaven—shortly to occur on Easter Sunday [cf. Ephesians 4:8]” (Bible Difficulties [Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1982]). [iv] The NET Bible First Edition. [v] http://www.desiringgod.org/sermons/strengthened-to-suffer-christ-noah-and-baptism |
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